“The Real Academia Espanola is not talking about the world "Americas" as being inappropriate. It is talking about the usage of America to name the United States that it is inappropriate.”

No 5hit.

Unlike you, I don’t have terrible reading comprehension.

Also, for those who claim that ‘las Américas’ doesn’t exist in Spanish, look at the second note of the link given above.

Knowledge is power. I am empowering you by educating you. You’re welcome.

Of course, Las Americas is a word used to call the three subregions of America as the Spanish like to call it. They also used to call "Las Europas". Nothing new there. Now, when you think that the name Americas is the name replacing the name for the continent "America" then is where this issue arises of the conflict with the USA etc. You have not gotten anything new, nor anything that it was known before, sorry!

Sorry, I wanted to say , "nor anything that was not known before"

Thanks for the info, as I was saying, Spain used Las Americas to call the 3 subregions of America, South, Central and North so there is nothing new there. and here is what you've share with us:

2. There is no reason to censor the plural Las Américas, which has a long tradition in Spanish and is a valid expressive denomination, alluding to the different areas or subcontinents (North America, Central America and South America): «The church of San Pedro Claver, the first saint of the Americas » (GaMárquez Vivir [Col. 2002]). This expressive plural is also present in the phrase make the Americas, used in Spain with the sense of 'making fortune in America' .

Subcontinents are not continents! "2.Nature

Continent

It is independent in nature.

Sub Continent

It is a sub-division of a continent.

I've never heard any Spaniards call the USA "América". The RAE states "uso abusivo", but the spanish meaning of "abusivo" has nothing to do "majority". "Abusar" is to make inadequate use of something. The only way Spaniards may hear "americano" as synonym of the USA is through US movies poorly doubbed by Puerto Ricans. I usually watch TVE and Antena 3, and have spoken with Spaniards a thousand times, and believe me: nobody in Spain calls the USA "América". Have you heard the song "América", by Spaniard singer José Luis Perales? It refers to Latin America.

That said, we are from the

United States

Also known as America.

The spread of the USA being called America is a misconception that has taken root in the world and now people defend it as if was a right from its conception. Spain knows this and that is why advises that that name is being used inappropriately.

Spain knows this? The land that comprises Spain knows? All Spaniards know? Even if all Spaniards know this, there are many Spaniards who use ‘América’ to refer to the USA.

You still don’t understand that there is a difference between what the RAE recommends and how some people actually speak. “Spain” doesn't know that your preferences dictate how all Spaniards must speak. “Spain” doesn’t know this because your preferences don’t dictate anything.

Because the USA is named after the continent.

Mercator’s 1538 map is the first time, as far as we know, that the name ‘America’ was applied to all of the Americas, and the first time that the names ‘North America’ and ‘South America’ were used.

In English, the meaning of the word ‘America’ has evolved over time. [And, yes, Roda/Saris/Mrs. Anonymous/Mrs. Obvious/Misses the Obvious, we all know that it is humans that create words, give words meaning, and give additional meanings to words.] It used to be common in English to refer to all of the Americas as ‘America’. Now it is quite rare. Now we are more likely to use ‘North America’ and ‘South America’ in reference to two continents, not one continent called ‘America’. Either way, whether the USA is considered to be in America or North America, the word ‘America’ is in the name of the continent, so that is why we use the word ‘America’ in the name of our country.

Evolve meaning taking it from the original meaning? the continent? How do you explain this evolving? Was it because of a few people's stupidity that the world evolved? or Was it for a different reason? But, if people realized what has been done to the meaning of the word "America" and they are good people, wouldn't they recourse to make amends? give back its original meaning and find a new name for the country? Why is it that they didn't do this, but instead kept it and tried to change the name of the continent? This does not sound like a evolving meaning of the word, perhaps something like taking of the word from other sources? changing its meaning for a purpose? Or just being naive and pretend that nothing is wrong and claim that the word just got a new meaning by evolving? Nah, this is more than just a word taking a new meaning due to evolution..lol

If it really concerns you so much that Vespucci didn’t explore in North America, then stop using your beloved ‘América’ to refer to all of the Americas, you hypocrite. ‘America’ originally referred to only South America. Vespucci actually explored there. Your current beloved meaning of ‘América’ includes Central America and North America. Vespucci didn’t explore there. Why do you criticize others for doing exactly what you do?, you monumental dimwit.

And, yes, Roda/Saris/Mrs. Anonymous, I know that humans changed the meaning of the word. So relax, Einstein. The point is that the meaning has changed in Spanish, English, and many other languages. The point is that the changes in English are just as correct and proper as the changes in Spanish.

Exactly, my point, humans have changed the meaning of the word "America". Now, the issue is at what point is this right, logical or correct? To change meanings is the least of the problem, but since humans are involved there might also be some reason to change the meanings in words. I have been pointing out that for a while! That the meaning changed by persons (who knows when this started) seems to have a purpose or an agenda behind it. That there is a conflict, there is, and now you are finally accepting that the name "America" is actually the continent's name but you still can't seem to explain why the USA use this name for the country knowing that it was the continent's name? Why didn't it correct this issue but instead recur to change the name of the continent instead? See, changing the meaning of names is easy, what is not is the why and what for?

If you read about how the map came to be, you will find that Waldseemuller and Ringmann did not just use Vespucci's navegation maps etc, no, they were using other navegacion maps and records from the time. There were others who navigated around California, and Florida, and other parts of America. They chose to name it after Vespucci but there were other resources from others that were useful to come up with the map of 1503. "Various remarks made in passing throughout the book implied that this map was extraordinary. It had been printed on several sheets, the author noted, suggesting that it was unusually large. It had been based on several sources: a brand-new letter by Amerigo Vespucci (included in the Introduction to Cosmography); the work of the second-century Alexandrian geographer Claudius Ptolemy; and charts of the regions of the western Atlantic newly explored by Vespucci, Columbus and others. Most significant, it depicted the New World in a dramatically new way."

This is the source for the info above: https://www.smithsonianmag.com/history/the-waldseemuller-map-charting-the-new-world-148815355/

It is what it is. Nothing has to be or is going to be the way you want it. Deal with it.

German, “You lose, American a55hole.”

This is a quote from the classic Jean-Claude Van Damme film ‘Bloodsport’. But in this case, I am using the rare continental sense of ‘American’, not the extremely common national sense. Enjoy.

Hold on, don't call me Unitedstatesian! it sounds like Asian. Statian, or United Statian is OK.

Lol, even so Austrian sounds like Australian (which are residents from 2 different countries) as well … so calling you Unitedstatesian or United Statesian is acceptable even if it sounds like Asian. It especially looks like the proper demonym that is derived from the country’s name known as United States (which refers to the USA only)!

I’m NOT calling you just Statian (without United in front) and United Statian (without ‘es’ between the letters of ‘t’ and ‘i’ in Statian). Sorry!

actually, the US is not entirely located in America, as Hawaii and some US territories are located in Oceania. similarly, the kingdom of the netherlands owns 3 constituent countries located in America

Once again you prove yourself to be completely ignorant. Not that any more proof was needed. Did you study logic? If you did, you would know that the application of names in natural human language is not inherently logical in the way that mathematics, or computer science, or a coherent argument is logical. You are such a clown. Explain the logic of using ‘Norteamérica’ as a country name for the US. Spanish and all other languages are not logical in the way you pretend they are. This doesn’t just apply to English. You only think it does because of your bias, ignorance, and simplemindedness.

Or you like to recur to denying by explaining the unexplainable, or You might be just talking about the English language. But, wait! I forgot that they actually found out that it was so illogical to have the country be called the same name as the continent in which it resides, that they had to make it logical by changing the name of the continent thereby dividing it between North and South America. To me it seems logic played a role in the use of the name "America" as far as this conflict was concerned.

So it became logical as soon as people had a concept of North America and South America?

Correct, the USA is in America. America is not in the USA. The continent, of America is divided into 3 subregions, North, Central and South America. These are only subregions of the continent of America. The USA is located in Norht America, that is in the Northern Subregion of America the continent. Panama is located in the Central Subregion of the continent of America, and not in the central USA. Peru is located in the South Subregion of the continent of America, and not in the south of the USA.

And the US is very commonly called America. By many, many millions of people. Who speak many different languages. Scoreboard!

And by many Spanish speakers. Especially in Spain. Because, you know, Spanish is an inherently logical language.

Spain?? Not according to the Real Academia Espanola and you yourself quoted it in here: "El diccionario de la Real Academia Española recientemente ha modificado la definición de América y americano, probando que en la actualidad estas palabras son generalmente usadas en referencia a los Estados Unidos y desaconsejando el uso con este inapropiado significado." According to what it says, hte Real Academia Espanola it discourages people to use America to call the U.S. as it says it is an inappropriate meaning of the name.

If we didn't know that the name America was inappropriately being used to name a country such as the U.S., we wouldn't be discussing this issue here or anywhere else. We know that it is being used, and as the Real Academia Espanola says, used inappropriately! This is the case we have been raising here at this site that it is wrong/inappropriate to use America for the name of a country/USA not that is not being used, but that is being used inappropriately.

Done by United Statians and the local translation of movies into different languages. This way the US manipulates young people with good fantasy films.